The Dance of the Bijective Function
Welcome, fellow traveler on the path to JEE mastery. Today, we are not just solving a combinatorics problem; we are choreographing a dance between two sets.
Imagine you are standing before two grand ballrooms. The left ballroom holds our domain, and the right holds our codomain. Our goal is to pair every guest in the left room with a unique partner in the right room, following a very specific set of rules.
Phase 1
The Ballroom Setup
First, let us count our guests. The domain D is the set of odd numbers {1,3,5,…,99}.
Using the arithmetic progression formula, we see there are exactly 50 elements. The codomain C is the set of even numbers {2,4,6,…,100}.
Counting these, we find another 50 elements. Since the number of elements is equal, a bijection is indeed possible.
Phase 2
The Constrained Subset
Now, the problem introduces a strict choreographer. It singles out a subset of the domain: S={3,9,15,…,99}.
This is an arithmetic progression where the first term a=3 and the common difference d=6. We need to know how many guests are in this specific group.
Using the n-th term formula l=a+(n−1)d, we set 99=3+(n−1)6. Solving this, we find 96=6(n−1), which gives us n−1=16, so n=17. We have 17 guests who must follow a very rigid rule.
Phase 3
The Bijection Trap
The rule states f(3)≥f(9)≥⋯≥f(99). But wait! We must pause.
The problem tells us the function is bijective. A bijective function must be injective, meaning no two distinct inputs can share the same output.
If
f(3) were equal to
f(9), the function would fail to be injective. Therefore, the 'greater than or equal to' sign is a clever disguise. It must be a
strict inequality:
f(3)>f(9)>f(15)>⋯>f(99)
Phase 4
The Selection and Arrangement
We have 17 guests who must be mapped to 17 distinct values from the codomain. First, we must choose 17 values out of the 50 available in the codomain.
The number of ways to do this is (1750).
Now, here is the beauty of the strict inequality. Once we have chosen these 17 values, is there any choice in how we assign them? Absolutely not!
The largest value must go to f(3), the second largest to f(9), and so on, down to the smallest value for f(99). There is exactly 1 way to arrange them. So, our current count is (1750)×1.
Phase 5
The Remaining Guests
We are not done yet. We have used 17 elements from the domain and 17 from the codomain.
That leaves 50−17=33 elements in both sets. These remaining guests have no constraints.
They can dance with each other in any way they please. The number of ways to map 33 elements to 33 elements is 33!.
Phase 6
The Grand Finale
To find the total number of bijective functions, we multiply our selection-and-arrangement count by the freedom of the remaining elements:
Let us expand the combination:
Substituting this back into our equation:
The 33! terms cancel out with elegant precision, leaving us with:
Recall the definition of a permutation: nPr=(n−r)!n!. Here, 50−33=17.
Thus, our result is exactly 50P33. We have successfully navigated the constraints and arrived at the solution. Remember, in JEE Advanced, it is not just about the calculation; it is about understanding the constraints that define the system. You have done well.