Welcome, future engineers, to another masterclass in the art of problem-solving. Today, we are staring down a beast of an expression: (1−x)101(x2+x+1)100.
When you see powers like 101 and 100, your instinct might be to panic or reach for a calculator, but in the JEE Advanced arena, we don't calculate; we strategize. Let us embark on this journey to find the coefficient of x256.
Analyzing the Setup
The first thing that should catch your eye is the mismatch in exponents. We have (1−x)101 and (x2+x+1)100.
This is a classic setup. We want to group these terms, but we cannot do that while the powers are different. So, let us perform a simple, elegant surgery.
We rewrite (1−x)101 as (1−x)×(1−x)100. Now, look at what we have:
By pulling that power of 100 outside, we have created a beautiful, symmetric structure.
The Identity
Now, focus your attention on the term inside the square brackets: (1−x)(x2+x+1). If you have been practicing your algebra, your heart should skip a beat here.
This is the classic difference of cubes identity! It collapses instantly into (1−x3).
Suddenly, our terrifying expression has transformed into:
This is the power of pattern recognition. We have taken a complex multinomial and reduced it to a simple binomial expansion.
The Split
We are not done yet. We need the coefficient of x256. Let us distribute that (1−x) across the binomial expansion.
This gives us two distinct terms: (1−x3)100 and −x(1−x3)100. We must analyze these separately.
For the first part, (1−x3)100, the general term is:
Tr+1=(r100)(−x3)r=(r100)(−1)rx3r
We set 3r=256. But wait, 256 is not divisible by 3. This means the first part contributes absolutely nothing to the coefficient of x256. It is a ghost term!
Final Calculation
Now, we turn to the second part: −x(1−x3)100. We need the total power to be x256.
Since we already have an x outside, we need the binomial expansion to provide x255. So, we set 3r=255.
Solving this gives us r=85. This is a valid integer!
Now, we calculate the coefficient: we have the −1 from the −x term, multiplied by the coefficient from the binomial expansion, which is (85100)(−1)85.
Since 85 is odd, (−1)85 is −1. Thus, we have:
(−1)×(85100)×(−1)=(85100)
We have arrived at our answer, but wait—check the options. (85100) is not there. Do not panic!
Use the symmetry property (rn)=(n−rn). Therefore:
(85100)=(100−85100)=(15100)
And there it is, option (b). You have successfully navigated the trap, simplified the expression, and found the hidden symmetry. This is how you conquer JEE Advanced.