Imagine a block of mass M resting peacefully on a smooth, frictionless surface. Suddenly, a force begins to push it. But this isn't your everyday constant force. It's dynamic. It starts at zero, smoothly ramps up to a maximum value of F0 at time T, and then gracefully drops back to zero at time 2T.
Our mission? To find the final velocity of this block after this entire push is over. Let's dive into the physics and mathematics of this beautiful problem.
Analyzing the Setup
We are given a time-varying force:
F(t)=F0[1−(Tt−T)2]
How do we connect this force to the velocity of the block? Newton's Second Law is our bridge. We know that force equals mass times acceleration, and acceleration is simply the rate of change of velocity, dtdv.
So, we can write:
F=Mdtdv
The Master Equation
By substituting our given force expression into Newton's Second Law, we get a differential equation:
Mdtdv=F0[1−(Tt−T)2]
To solve this, we need to separate the variables. We keep the velocity terms on the left and move all the time terms to the right. Multiplying both sides by
dt and dividing by
M, we get:
dv=MF0[1−(Tt−T)2]dt
Now, we are ready to integrate. The particle starts from rest, so at
t=0, the velocity
v=0. The force acts until time
2T, and let's call the final velocity
v. Setting up the definite integral:
∫0vdv=∫02TMF0[1−(Tt−T)2]dt
Executing the Integration
Integrating the left side is straightforward; it simply gives us v. For the right side, we integrate term by term. The integral of 1 is t. For the second term, we use the power rule combined with the chain rule. The integral of x2 is 3x3.
Applying this, we get:
v=MF0[t−3T2(t−T)3]02T
Now comes the critical part: substituting the limits. We must be very careful with the negative signs!
First, substitute the upper limit
2T:
Upper Limit=2T−3T2(2T−T)3=2T−3T2T3=2T−3T
Next, substitute the lower limit
0:
Lower Limit=0−3T2(0−T)3=−3T2−T3=3T
Subtracting the lower limit from the upper limit:
v=MF0[(2T−3T)−(3T)]
Final Calculation
Let's wrap up the algebra.
v=MF0[2T−32T]
Taking the LCM,
6T−2T gives us
4T.
v=MF0[34T]
So, our final velocity is:
v=3M4F0T
The Pro-Tip
Graphical Method
Is there a way to solve this without the messy integration? Absolutely!
The integral of force over time is simply the area under the Force-Time graph, which represents the Impulse (J). Our force equation represents a downward-opening parabola.
A beautiful geometric property states that the area of a parabolic segment is exactly 32×base×height.
Looking at our graph, the base is
2T and the maximum height is
F0.
J=Area=32×(2T)×F0=34F0T
Since Impulse equals the change in momentum (
J=Mv−0), we can directly write:
v=MJ=3M4F0T
Boom! We arrive at the exact same answer in just one line. Mastering both the rigorous calculus approach and the elegant graphical shortcut is what makes a true physics champion!