Welcome, future engineer. Today, we are going to dismantle a problem that, at first glance, might look like a chaotic mess of variables and trigonometric functions. But in the world of JEE Advanced, chaos is often just order waiting to be discovered.
Let us embark on this journey to solve the differential equation (x2+1)y′−2xy=(x4+2x2+1)cosx with the initial condition y(0)=1.
Phase 1
The Art of Pattern Recognition
The first step in any battle is reconnaissance. Look at the right-hand side: (x4+2x2+1)cosx.
Does that polynomial look familiar? It is a perfect square in disguise! We can rewrite it as (x2+1)2cosx.
This realization is our first victory. It transforms a daunting expression into something manageable. Our goal is to force this equation into the standard linear form:
To do this, we divide the entire equation by (x2+1). The equation becomes:
dxdy−x2+12xy=(x2+1)cosx
Now, we have clearly identified our P(x)=−x2+12x and our Q(x)=(x2+1)cosx.
Phase 2
The Magic of the Integrating Factor
Now, we summon the Integrating Factor (I.F.), the secret weapon for linear differential equations. The formula is I.F.=e∫P(x)dx.
Substituting our P(x), we get:
Pause here. Look at the integral. If we let u=x2+1, then du=2xdx. The integral becomes −∫udu, which is −ln(x2+1).
Thus, our I.F. is e−ln(x2+1). Using the properties of logarithms, this simplifies beautifully to:
Phase 3
The Elegant Cancellation
Now, we multiply our standard form equation by this Integrating Factor. The left side becomes the derivative of the product y⋅I.F., and the right side simplifies miraculously.
We get:
x2+1y=∫(x2+1)cosx⋅x2+11dx+C
Notice how the (x2+1) terms vanish? We are left with:
Integrating cosx gives us sinx. So, x2+1y=sinx+C.
Using the initial condition y(0)=1, we find 1=0+C, meaning C=1. Our specific solution is:
Phase 4
The Symmetry Shortcut
Finally, we must evaluate ∫−33y(x)dx. This is ∫−33(x2+1)(sinx+1)dx.
We split this into two integrals:
∫−33(x2+1)sinxdx+∫−33(x2+1)dx
The first integral involves an odd function over symmetric limits, which is zero! The second integral is an even function, so it becomes:
Calculating this, we get:
And there you have it. Through pattern recognition, systematic method, and the beauty of symmetry, we have arrived at the answer: 24.