Your heart rate spikes. It looks like a chaotic mess of summations, trigonometric powers, and a lingering cosine term. But take a deep breath. In the world of JEE Advanced, intimidation is often the first layer of the problem. The complexity is a mask. Our job is to peel it away.
Phase 1
The First Step of Clarity
Whenever you see a function and its derivative sitting side-by-side, your instincts should scream 'Substitution!' We have sinx raised to various powers, and we have cosxdx sitting right there at the end. This is a gift.
Let us define t=sinx. Immediately, the differential becomes dt=cosxdx.
Now, look at the limits. When x=0, t=0. When x=π/2, t=1. The integral transforms into something much cleaner:
fn=∫01(k=1∑ntk−1)(k=1∑n(2k−1)tk−1)dt
We have successfully moved from the world of trigonometry to the world of polynomials. This is the first victory.
Phase 2
The Hidden Relationship
Let us label our two series. Let S1=∑k=1ntk−1 and S2=∑k=1n(2k−1)tk−1. If you try to sum these using standard geometric progression formulas, you will find yourself drowning in algebraic fractions. There must be a deeper connection.
Look at S1=1+t+t2+⋯+tn−1. Now look at S2=1+3t+5t2+⋯+(2n−1)tn−1.
Do you see it? The coefficients in S2 are odd numbers, and the powers in S1 are integers. If we multiply S1 by t, we get:
z=t+t3/2+t5/2+⋯+tn−1/2
Phase 3
The Masterstroke
Now, differentiate this new variable z with respect to t. The derivative of tk−1/2 is (k−1/2)tk−3/2.
This looks slightly different, but watch what happens when we factor out 2t1. We get:
dz=2t1(1+3t+5t2+⋯+(2n−1)tn−1)dt
Suddenly, the entire second series S2 appears inside the parentheses! We have discovered that dz=2t1S2dt. This means S2dt=2tdz. This is the 'Aha!' moment that separates the top rankers from the rest.
Phase 4
The Collapse
Let us substitute this back into our integral. We know S1=tz. We know S2dt=2tdz.
When we multiply them, the t terms cancel out perfectly:
S1S2dt=(tz)(2tdz)=2zdz
The entire complex expression has collapsed into the integral of 2zdz. We must update our limits one last time. When t=0, z=0. When t=1, z=1+1+⋯+1 (n times), so z=n.
The integral becomes:
fn=∫0n2zdz
This is trivial! The result is fn=[z2]0n=n2.
The Final Celebration
We started with a terrifying integral, and through the power of substitution and pattern recognition, we reduced it to fn=n2. The question asks for f21−f20.
That is simply 212−202. Using the identity a2−b2=(a−b)(a+b), we get:
(21−20)(21+20)=1×41=41
The monster is defeated. You didn't just solve a problem; you navigated a labyrinth of logic. Keep this elegance in your toolkit—it is the hallmark of a true mathematician. The final answer is 41.