Analyzing the Setup
Welcome, future engineers! Today, we are tackling a problem that looks like a monster. It is a limit at infinity involving inverse trigonometric functions, natural logarithms, and a mysterious function f(x).
Many students see this and immediately think of L'Hopital's rule or Taylor series expansions. But stop! Take a breath. The JEE Advanced is not just about calculation; it is about insight.
The problem provides the condition:
f′(1)=a→∞lima2f(a1)
This is not just a piece of information; it is the key to the entire vault. We are asked to evaluate:
L=a→∞lim[2a(a+1)tan−1(a1)+a2−2logea]
Notice the structure? It is screaming at us that this limit is exactly the expression we need to find f′(1). Our mission is not to solve the limit, but to unmask f(x).
The Power of Substitution
To simplify this, let us use the most powerful tool in our arsenal: substitution. Let x=a1. As a→∞, our variable x gracefully approaches 0+.
This changes everything. The term a2 becomes x21, and the term logea becomes loge(x1), which is −logex.
Now, let us rewrite our limit
L in terms of
x:
L=x→0+lim[2x1(x1+1)tan−1(x)+x21−2(−logex)]
Simplifying this, we get:
L=x→0+lim[2x21+xtan−1(x)+x21+2logex]
The Unmasking
Now, look at the expression again. We know
L=limx→0+x21f(x). So, let us factor out
x21 from our expression:
L=x→0+limx21[21+xtan−1(x)+1+2x2logex]
By comparing this to the form
limx→0+x21f(x), we have successfully extracted our hidden function:
f(x)=21+xtan−1(x)+1+2x2logex
We have done the hard work! We do not need to evaluate the limit anymore. The problem tells us that this limit is equal to f′(1).
The Final Victory
Now, we just need to find the derivative of
f(x) and evaluate it at
x=1. Let us differentiate:
f(x)=21+xtan−1(x)+1+2x2logex
Applying the product rule to the first term, we get:
21tan−1(x)+2(1+x2)1+x
The derivative of the constant
1 is
0.
For the last term,
2x2logex, the product rule gives us:
4xlogex+2x2⋅x1=4xlogex+2x
Combining these, we have:
f′(x)=21tan−1(x)+2(1+x2)1+x+4xlogex+2x
Finally, we plug in
x=1:
f′(1)=21tan−1(1)+2(1+12)1+1+4(1)loge(1)+2(1)
Since
tan−1(1)=4π and
loge(1)=0, this simplifies beautifully to:
f′(1)=21(4π)+42+0+2=8π+0.5+2=25+8π
And there it is! The complexity vanishes, leaving behind a simple, elegant result. You have conquered the problem!