Animated Solution for Mathematics - Differentiation: Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval (-1, 1) such that e−xf(x)=2+∫0xt4+1dt, for all x∈(−1,1), and let f−1 be the inverse function of f. Then (f−1)′(2) is equal to
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Visualized Solution
Problem Objective
Given Equation: e−xf(x)=2+∫0xt4+1dt
Goal: Find (f−1)′(2)
Inverse Derivative Formula
The derivative of an inverse function is given by:
(f−1)′(y)=f′(x)1
Where y=f(x)
Finding x for y=2
We need x such that f(x)=2.
Let's test x=0 in the given equation:
e−0f(0)=2+∫00t4+1dt
Evaluating f(0)
1⋅f(0)=2+0
f(0)=2
The point (0,2) lies on f(x).
The Inverse Point
Since f(0)=2, it implies f−1(2)=0.
The point (2,0) lies on f−1(x).
We need to find f′(0) to get (f−1)′(2).
Differentiating the Equation
Differentiate both sides with respect to x:
dxd[e−xf(x)]=dxd[2+∫0xt4+1dt]
Applying Product & Leibniz Rules
LHS (Product Rule): −e−xf(x)+e−xf′(x)
RHS (Leibniz Rule): 0+x4+1
Equation: −e−xf(x)+e−xf′(x)=x4+1
Substituting x=0
Substitute x=0 into the differentiated equation:
−e0f(0)+e0f′(0)=04+1
−1⋅2+1⋅f′(0)=1
Calculating f′(0)
−2+f′(0)=1
f′(0)=3
The slope of f(x) at (0,2) is 3.
Final Inverse Derivative
(f−1)′(2)=f′(0)1
(f−1)′(2)=31
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The Sigma Insight: Inverse of a Function
Solution Diagram
Analyzing the Setup
Imagine you are standing on the edge of a mathematical landscape, looking at the function f(x) defined by the equation:
e−xf(x)=2+∫0xt4+1dt
It looks intimidating, but in the world of JEE Advanced, intimidation is just a sign that you are about to learn something beautiful. Our goal is to find (f−1)′(2).
The Golden Rule of Inverses
Before we touch the integral, let's remember the fundamental connection between a function and its inverse. The derivative of an inverse function is the reciprocal of the derivative of the original function.
Specifically, the relationship is defined as:
(f−1)′(y)=f′(x)1, where y=f(x)
This means our entire mission is reduced to two simple steps: find the x that gives f(x)=2, and then find the slope f′(x) at that point.
The Search for the Magic Point
How do we find x such that f(x)=2? Look at the integral ∫0xt4+1dt.
If we set x=0, the upper and lower limits of the integral become identical, and the integral vanishes. Let's test x=0 in our original equation:
e−0f(0)=2+∫00t4+1dt
Since e0=1 and the integral is 0, we get 1⋅f(0)=2+0, which means f(0)=2. We have found our point! The function passes through (0,2), so the inverse function must pass through (2,0).
The Calculus Heavy Lifting
Now, let's differentiate the entire equation with respect to x. On the left side, we have a product of two functions, e−x and f(x), so we use the Product Rule:
dxd[e−xf(x)]=−e−xf(x)+e−xf′(x)
On the right side, we have the constant 2 and an integral. The derivative of 2 is 0. For the integral, we use the Leibniz Rule, which tells us that the derivative of ∫0xg(t)dt is simply g(x).
So, the derivative of ∫0xt4+1dt is x4+1. Putting it all together, we get the equation:
−e−xf(x)+e−xf′(x)=x4+1
The Final Victory
We are almost there! We need f′(0), so let's plug x=0 into our new derivative equation:
−e0f(0)+e0f′(0)=04+1
We already know f(0)=2, so this becomes −1⋅2+1⋅f′(0)=1. Simplifying this gives −2+f′(0)=1, which leads us to f′(0)=3.
Finally, using our inverse derivative formula:
(f−1)′(2)=f′(0)1=31
And there it is! The complexity of the integral was just a mask, and through the power of the Leibniz Rule and the symmetry of inverses, we have arrived at the elegant solution of 1/3.