Setting the Stage
The Oscillating Needle
Imagine a compass needle resting peacefully in a uniform magnetic field. If you give it a tiny nudge, it doesn't just spin out of control.
It experiences a restoring torque that pulls it back, causing it to oscillate back and forth, much like a pendulum.
This restoring torque arises because the magnetic field tries to align the magnetic dipole moment of the needle with itself.
The Master Equation
Mechanics meets Electromagnetism
Because this restoring torque is proportional to the angular displacement for small angles, the needle performs Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM).
The time period of this oscillation is given by a classic formula:
This equation beautifully connects the mechanics of inertia (I) with the electromagnetism of the dipole (M and B).
Decoding the Given Data
Now, the problem tells us that the needle completes 10 full oscillations in exactly 5 seconds.
The time period is simply the time taken for one single oscillation. So, we divide the total time by the number of oscillations:
This gives us a clean time period of 0.5 s. Simple and sweet!
The Art of Algebraic Rearrangement
We need to find the magnitude of the magnetic field, B. To get B out of that square root prison, let's square both sides of our time period equation.
Now, just a quick cross-multiplication to isolate B on one side:
Watch out for the algebra here; isolating variables correctly is crucial before plugging in any messy numbers.
The Magic of Cancellation and Final Computation
It's time to plug in the numbers. We have the moment of inertia I=5×10−6 kg m2, the magnetic moment M=9.85×10−2 A/m2, and our newly found time period T=0.5 s.
Also, notice the beautiful hint given in the question: take π2 as 9.85. Let's substitute all these values into our rearranged equation:
B=9.85×10−2×(0.5)24×9.85×5×10−6
Did you get the feel of it? The 9.85 in the numerator and denominator cancel out perfectly! This is a classic JEE move to test your presence of mind.
Now, 4×5 gives 20 in the numerator, and 0.52 is 0.25 in the denominator. The calculation just became incredibly easy.
Which simplifies to exactly 8×10−3 T. Since the question asks for the answer in milli-Tesla (mT), our final answer is simply 8.