Analyzing the Setup
Welcome, fellow explorers of the mathematical universe. Today, we stand before a problem that, at first glance, might seem like a daunting mountain of calculus.
We are tasked with evaluating the integral I=∫014cot−1(1−2x+4x2)dx. It looks complex, perhaps even impossible, but in the world of JEE Advanced, complexity is often just a mask for elegance. Let us peel back that mask together.
Phase 1
The Reciprocal Shift
Our first instinct when facing an inverse trigonometric function like cot−1 is to seek a more familiar territory. We know that cot−1(x)=tan−1(x1) for x>0.
Since our limits of integration are from 0 to 1, the argument 1−2x+4x2 is always positive. Thus, we can rewrite our core integral J as:
J=∫01tan−1(1−2x+4x21)dx
This transformation is our first victory. We have moved from the unfamiliar to the familiar.
Phase 2
The Algebraic Dance
Now, look closely at that denominator: 1−2x+4x2. It is begging to be manipulated. We want to force it into the form 1+AB to utilize the identity tan−1(1+ABA−B)=tan−1(A)−tan−1(B).
Let us rearrange the terms:
1−2x+4x2=1+(4x2−2x)=1+2x(2x−1)
Here, we have identified our A and B. If A=2x and B=2x−1, then A−B=2x−(2x−1)=1. The numerator of our integrand is exactly 1.
This is not a coincidence; it is the design of the problem. Our integral now becomes:
J=∫01tan−1(1+2x(2x−1)2x−(2x−1))dx
Applying the identity, we split the integral into two simpler parts:
J=∫01tan−1(2x)dx−∫01tan−1(2x−1)dx
Phase 3
The Vanishing Act
Let us focus on the second integral, K=∫01tan−1(2x−1)dx. This is where the 'King's Rule' shines. By replacing x with (1−x), we get:
K=∫01tan−1(2(1−x)−1)dx=∫01tan−1(1−2x)dx
Since tan−1(−x)=−tan−1(x), we have K=−∫01tan−1(2x−1)dx=−K. This implies 2K=0, so K=0.
The second integral has vanished into thin air, leaving us with only the first part!
Phase 4
The Final Integration
We are left with J=∫01tan−1(2x)dx. We solve this using integration by parts, letting u=tan−1(2x) and dv=dx.
The formula ∫udv=uv−∫vdu gives us:
J=[xtan−1(2x)]01−∫011+4x22xdx
The boundary term evaluates to tan−1(2). The remaining integral is a simple logarithmic form, 41ln(1+4x2), which evaluates to 41ln(5).
Thus, J=tan−1(2)−41ln(5).
Multiplying by the constant 4 we set aside at the start, we get I=4tan−1(2)−ln(5). Comparing this to atan−1(2)−bln(5), we find a=4 and b=1.
The final value 2a+b=2(4)+1=9. We have conquered the mountain!