Welcome, future engineer. Today, we are not just solving an integral; we are embarking on a journey of mathematical elegance.
When you first look at the integral
I=∫0πsin4x+cos4xx2sinxcosxdx
it is natural to feel a surge of intimidation. It looks like a chaotic mess of powers, trigonometric functions, and a variable x2 that seems to be in the way of everything. But in the world of JEE Advanced, intimidation is just a sign that you are about to learn something profound.
Analyzing the Setup
The first step in any complex integration problem is to observe the boundaries. We are integrating from 0 to π.
In the realm of trigonometry, π is a special number. It is the period of many functions, and it suggests symmetry. We decide to split our integral at the midpoint, π/2.
Because the denominator, sin4x+cos4x, is perfectly symmetric around π/2, we split the integral into:
I=∫0π/2f(x)dx+∫π/2πf(x)dx
We are not just splitting the area; we are creating two distinct zones to manipulate.
The Substitution Dance
Now, we focus on the second integral, the one running from π/2 to π. We want it to look like the first one.
We use the substitution x=π−t. When x=π/2, t=π/2. When x=π, t=0. The differential dx becomes −dt.
As we substitute, we observe the trigonometric terms: sin(π−t) remains sint, and cos(π−t) becomes −cost. The negative sign from the differential and the negative sign from the cosine term cancel out, and the limits flip back to 0 to π/2.
Suddenly, the second integral is transformed into:
−∫0π/2sin4x+cos4x(π−x)2sinxcosxdx
The limits now match the first integral perfectly.
The Algebraic Miracle
This is the moment where the problem begins to collapse in our favor. We combine the two integrals into one:
I=∫0π/2sin4x+cos4x(x2−(π−x)2)sinxcosxdx
Look at the numerator: x2−(π−x)2. If we expand (π−x)2, we get π2−2πx+x2. Subtracting this from x2 gives us x2−(π2−2πx+x2)=2πx−π2.
The x2 terms vanish! We are left with a much cleaner expression:
I=∫0π/2sin4x+cos4x(2πx−π2)sinxcosxdx
We can now split this into two integrals:
J1=2π∫0π/2sin4x+cos4xxsinxcosxdx
and
K1=−π2∫0π/2sin4x+cos4xsinxcosxdx
The King's Rule Magic
We solve K1 first. By dividing the numerator and denominator by cos4x, we get:
Substituting u=tan2x turns this into a standard arctangent integral, yielding π/4.
Now for J1. This is where King's Rule shines. By replacing x with (π/2−x), the x term in the numerator is eliminated, and we find that 2J1=2πK1.
Thus, J1=4πK1=16π2.
Final Calculation
We plug these values back into our expression for I:
I=2π(16π2)−π2(4π)=8π3−4π3=−8π3
The question asks for π3120∣I∣. Substituting our result, we get:
You have navigated the complexity, respected the symmetry, and arrived at the truth. This is the essence of JEE Advanced mathematics: finding the simple path through the complex forest.